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Exam Code: 1Z0-522
Exam Name: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne Financial Management 9.0 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your client wants help with the budget process. When you create budget pattern codes for each
business year, you can:
A. Create up to 12 seasonal pattern codes and spread amounts equally across the number of periods.
B. Create multiple seasonal pattern codes, assign the pattern codes to the budgeted accounts, and
spread amounts across the periods, according the pattern setup.
C. Create an unlimited number of seasonal pattern codes, spread amounts equally across the number of
periods, and bypass spreading amounts if you bypass spreading for every account in the company.
D. Create four seasonal pattern codes, spread amounts equally across the number of periods, and
bypass spreading amounts.
E. Create only one pattern code for each company, although different companies can have different
pattern codes if desired.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your financial implementation client lead needs assistance on understanding the Detail Method of
Intercompany settlements. You explain that the Detail Method uses _______to track Intercompany
settlements and the company associated with the first journal entry line acts as the _________ for the
transaction.
A. Subsidiaries, detail company
B. Subledger, hub company
C. Subledgers, consolidation company
D. Subledgers, detail company
E. Subsidiaries, hub company
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your client wants the system to calculate discounts on the gross amount of a voucher plus tax. In which
of the following programs can the client set up the system to calculate discounts in this manner?
A. Tax Rules by Company
B. Supplier Master
C. Tax Explanation Codes
D. Processing Options for Voucher Entry
E. A/P Constants
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your client would like to know if they should set up additional customer records or use Line of Business
processing.
Why would you want to activate Line of Business processing.?
A. To set up multiple sets SIC values for the customer.
B. To use a different default business unit for invoice entry.
C. To establish multiple Address Book records.
D. To establish a credit limit hierarchy by company.
E. To set up multiple sets of default information for the customer by company.
Answer: E

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NO.5 You were asked to create an allocation of all advertising expenses to all marketing departments based
on each individual marketing department's sales revenue. Assuming that the advertising expense object
accounts and sales revenue object accounts are within one specified range, how will you most efficiently
accomplish this allocation?
A. Use a Model Journal Entry
B. Use the Variable Numerator Allocation
C. Use the Recurring Journal Entry
D. Use the Indexed Allocation
E. Use a Variable Model
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are going through the month end dose process. If you run the Account Balance without Account
Master Integrity report and have the processing option set to update mode/ what do you update?
A. the business unit of all account ledger records that have an invalid business unit number
B. the account description of ail account ledger records that have an invalid company number
C. the company number of all account ledger records that have an invalid company number
D. the company number of the account master records with the correct business unit
E. the company number of all account balance records that have an invalid company number
Answer: E

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NO.7 The Supplier Analysis report shows Year to Date information that is inaccurate. Why is this so?
A. The AP Annual Close has not been processed.
B. Your Data Selection in the Supplier Master report is incorrect.
C. The aging accounts are not set up in the A/P Constants.
D. The Beginning Year A/P and A/P period fields have not been updated In the Company Numbers and
Names.
E. The Supplier/Customer Totals by G/L Accounts report has not been run.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an element of Asset Depreciation?
A. Net Book Value
B. Time Value of money
C. Salvage value of money
D. Time
Answer: A

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NO.9 Your client wants to use the fastest method to enter high-volume, simple voucher entries. What Voucher
Entry would you recommend to your client to use?
A. Standard Voucher Entry
B. Voucher Logging Entry
C. Speed Voucher Entry
D. Multi-Voucher, Multi-Supplier
E. Multi-Company, Single-Supplier
Answer: C

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NO.10 What two ways can a user access the submitted jobs?
A. by entering 'BV' in the fastpath of a Web Client and selecting a form exit
B. by typing 'Jobs' in the fastpath of a Web Client D C) by selecting Submitted Jobs from the menu
C. by taking a form exit from the Address Book
D. by selecting 'My System Profile' from the menu
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-540
Exam Name: Oracle (oracle VM 2 for x86 Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When converting hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in vm.cfq is
likely leftover from the HVM configuration?
A. vnclisten = '0.0.0.0'
B. pae =1
C. builder= hvm
D. serial= pty
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement best describes the pricing metric for Oracle VM configurations?
A. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is included at no
charge.
B. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager is
included at no charge.
C. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager
license and support contract is purchased for each server.
D. Oracle VM Server license and support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager
license and support contract is purchased for one server.
E. Oracle VM Server support contract is purchased for each server. Oracle VM Manager support is
purchased for one server.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0
and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest
Answer: C

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NO.4 A virtual machine is copied onto portable media and transferred to another machine In a different server
pool. The virtual machine is then run on the new host, but it falls to boot. What are two potential
problems?
A. The virtual machine was not exported properly using the Oracle VM Manager.
B. The virtual machine configuration file needs to be changed to update the new paths to its virtualdisks.
C. The virtual machine configuration file lists bridges that do not exist on the new host.
D. The virtual machine has not been registered with Oracle VM yet.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When an Oracle VM server starts, by default how does it map physical NICs to Xen bridges?
A. Each physical NIC is mapped to one or more virtual networks, each of which is assigned a Xen bridge.
B. One Xen bridge will be created for each physical NIC.
C. All physical NICs are mapped to a single Xen bridge.
D. No mapping of physical NICs to Xen bridges is done by default.
E. The first physical NIC is assigned to dom0's management; a Xen bridge is then created for each of the
remaining cards.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the purpose of the use command
In the CLI?
A. Use a specified server pool as the default for all commands requiring a server pool argument.
B. Use a specified virtual machine name as the default for all commands requiring a virtual
machine argument.
C. Use a specified user name as the default for all commands requiring a user name argument.
D. Use a specified server name as the default for all commands requiring a server argument.
E. Use a specified group name as the default for all commands requiring a group argument.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What two steps would best harden an Oracle VM Server installation?
A. Avoid installing additional software in dom0.
B. Enable firewalling in dom0.
C. Install virus checking software in dom0.
D. Use Trusted Computing Modules for Xen0.
E. Do not share physical network cards between hosts that are on a different subnet.
Answer: A,E

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NO.8 What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?
A. Use the repos.py command with the --new option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
B. Use the repos.py command with the --new option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository.
C. Use the repos.py command with the--new option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository and a device path.
D. Use the repos.py command with the path. root option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
E. Use the repos.py command with the--root option, along with the UUID assigned to the
repository.
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 A low priority guest is using up more of the physical network traffic than desired. Select the two valid
network QoS settings for restricting outbound network traffic?
A. [max_rate=lMb/s]
B. [rate=lMb/s@20ms]
C. [rate=250Kb/s]
D. [max_rate=unlimited]
E. [rate=250Rb/s, max rate=1Mb/s]
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 Which three are part of the JeOS toolkit?
A. Linux command to customize the JeOS images and create the template D B) JeOS license file
B. Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
C. Microsoft Windows JeOS images to use for the System.img E) Template reconfiguration scripts
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux JeOS images to use for the System.img
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0
and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0, and the guest.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is the effect of running a server pool restores?
A. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the Oracle VM Manager database
Isdeleted, and the data in the server pool master and virtual machine servers is used to restock the
database.
B. When you restore a server pool, all servers are removed from the pool, and the data in the database is
removed, restoring the server pool to its initial state.
C. When you restore a server pool, all the data stored in the server pool master will be deleted, and will be
synchronized with the latest information from the Oracle VM Manager database. The server pool master
is responsible for updating the individual Oracle VM servers' agent databases.
D. When you restore a server pool, a signal is sent out to each server in the pool, which responds with the
current state of all of the virtual machines it hosts. This data is used to restore the data in the Oracle VM
database.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which disk protocol is the default disk type for disks in a paravirtualized guest?
A. HD (IDE)
B. SD (SCSI)
C. XVD
D. RAW
Answer: A

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NO.14 Networking is not working for several guests on a particular host. Which two commands can help
troubleshoot the networking?
A. xm list -1 will show all of the network interfaces for all of the virtual machines, which can be used to see
which bridge is having problems.
B. config_network.py -l will show which network interfaces are in use, and which are having problems.
C. brctl show will show the status of each bridge, and which VIFs are connected to it. This canthen be
used to determine which bridge is having problems.
D. System-config-network will list the virtual interfaces, which can be inspected to see which arehaving
problems.
E. ifconfig -a will show a list of all network interfaces and their current status, which will help determine
which bridge is having problems.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What component of Oracle VM Product is specifically responsible for the automatic failover process.?
A. OCFS2
B. Server Pool Master
C. Oracle Clusterware
D. utility server
E. virtual machine server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-852
Exam Name: Oracle (Java Standard Edition 6 Programmer Certified Professional Upgrade Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Base b = new Base();

NO.2 Building build2 = (Building) barn1;

NO.3 }

NO.4 System.out.print(Sub.FOO);

NO.5 public static void main(String[] args) {

NO.6 System.out.print(b.FOO);

NO.7 System.out.print(Base.FOO);

NO.8 }
Which is true?
A. If line 10 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
B. If line 11 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
C. If line 12 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
D. If line 13 is removed, the compilation succeeds.
E. More than one line must be removed for compilation to succeed.
Answer: C

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4.Given:
10. abstract class A {
11. abstract void a1();
12. void a2() { }
13. }
14. class B extends A {
15. void a1() { }

NO.9 Given:
1. public class Base {

NO.10 } }

NO.11 System.out.print(((Base)s).FOO);

NO.12 Sub s = new Sub();

NO.13 public static final String FOO = "foo";

NO.14 System.out.print(s.FOO);

NO.15 }

NO.16 class C extends B { void c1() { } }
and:
A x = new B(); C y = new C(); A z = new C();
What are four valid examples of polymorphic method calls? (Choose four.)
A. x.a2();
B. z.a2();
C. z.c1();
D. z.a1();
E. y.c1();
F. x.a1();
Answer: A,B,D,F

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5.A company that makes Computer Assisted Design (CAD) software has, within its application, some
utility classes that are used to perform 3D rendering tasks. The company's chief scientist has just
improved the performance of one of the utility classes' key rendering algorithms, and has assigned a
programmer to replace the old algorithm with the new algorithm. When the programmer begins
researching the utility classes, she is happy to discover that the algorithm to be replaced exists in only one
class. The programmer reviews that class's API, and replaces the old algorithm with the new algorithm,
being careful that her changes adhere strictly to the class's API. Once testing has begun, the programmer
discovers that other classes that use the class she
changed are no longer working properly. What design flaw is most likely the cause of these new bugs?
A. Inheritance
B. Tight coupling
C. Low cohesion
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B

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6.Given:
11. class Mammal { }
12.
13. class Raccoon extends Mammal {
14. Mammal m = new Mammal();
15. }
16.
17. class BabyRaccoon extends Mammal { }
Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. Raccoon is-a Mammal.
B. Raccoon has-a Mammal.
C. BabyRaccoon is-a Mammal.
D. BabyRaccoon is-a Raccoon.
E. BabyRaccoon has-a Mammal.
F. BabyRaccoon is-a BabyRaccoon.
Answer: A,B,C,F

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7.Given:
2. public class Hi {
3. void m1() { }
4. protected void() m2 { }
5. } 6. class Lois extends Hi {
7. // insert code here
8. }
Which four code fragments, inserted independently at line 7, will compile? (Choose four.)
A. public void m1() { }
B. protected void m1() { }
C. private void m1() { }
D. void m2() { }
E. public void m2() { }
F. protected void m2() { }
G. private void m2() { }
Answer: A,B,E,F

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8.Given that:
Gadget has-a Sprocket and
Gadget has-a Spring and
Gadget is-a Widget and
Widget has-a Sprocket
Which two code fragments represent these relationships? (Choose two.)
A. class Widget { Sprocket s; }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s; }
B. class Widget { }
class Gadget extends Widget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
C. class Widget { Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
class Gadget extends Widget { }
D. class Gadget { Spring s; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s; }
E. class Gadget { }
class Widget extends Gadget{ Sprocket s1; Spring s2; }
F. class Gadget { Spring s1; Sprocket s2; }
class Widget extends Gadget{ }
Answer: A,C

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9.Given the following six method names:
addListener
addMouseListener
setMouseListener
deleteMouseListener
removeMouseListener
registerMouseListener
How many of these method names follow JavaBean Listener naming rules?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B

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10.Click the Exhibit button.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Compilation fails.
B. The code compiles and the output is 2.
C. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, compilation would fail.
D. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, compilation would fail.
E. If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be2.
F. If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 1.
Answer: B,E,F

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11.Given:
1. class Alligator {
2. public static void main(String[] args) {
3. int []x[] = {{1,2}, {3,4,5}, {6,7,8,9}};
4. int [][]y = x;
5. System.out.println(y[2][1]);
6. }
7. }
What is the result?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7
F. Compilation fails.
Answer: E

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12.Given:
11. public static void main(String[] args) {
12. Object obj = new int[] { 1, 2, 3 };
13. int[] someArray = (int[])obj;
14. for (int i : someArray) System.out.print(i + " ");
15. }
What is the result?
A. 1 2 3
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 12.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 13.
D. Compilation fails because of an error in line 14.
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Answer: A

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13.Given:
11. public interface A { public void m1(); }
12.
13. class B implements A { }
14. class C implements A { public void m1() { } }
15. class D implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
16. abstract class E implements A { }
17. abstract class F implements A { public void m1() { } }
18. abstract class G implements A { public void m1(int x) { } }
What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. Exactly one class does NOT compile.
C. Exactly two classes do NOT compile.
D. Exactly four classes do NOT compile.
E. Exactly three classes do NOT compile.
Answer: C

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14.Given:
21. abstract class C1 {
22. public C1() { System.out.print(1); }
23. }
24. class C2 extends C1 {
25. public C2() { System.out.print(2); }
26. }
27. class C3 extends C2 {
28. public C3() { System.out.println(3); }
29. }
30. public class Ctest {
31. public static void main(String[] a) { new C3(); }
32. }
What is the result?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 32
D. 123
E. 321
F. Compilation fails.
G. An exception is thrown at runtime.
Answer: D

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15.Given:
1. public class A {
2. public void doit() {
3. }
4. public String doit() {
5. return "a";
6. }
7. public double doit(int x) {
8. return 1.0;
9. }
10. }
What is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. Compilation fails because of an error in line 7.
C. Compilation fails because of an error in line 4.
D. Compilation succeeds and no runtime errors with class A occur.
Answer: C

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NO.17 class Sub extends Base {public static final String FOO="bar";}
What is the result?
A. foofoofoofoofoo
B. foobarfoobarbar
C. foobarfoofoofoo
D. foobarfoobarfoo
E. barbarbarbarbar
F. foofoofoobarbar
G. foofoofoobarfoo
Answer: D

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2.A company has a business application that provides its users with many different reports: receivables
reports, payables reports, revenue projects, and so on. The company has just
purchased some new, state-of-the-art, wireless printers, and a programmer has been assigned the task of
enhancing all of the reports to use not only the company's old printers, but the new wireless printers as
well. When the programmer starts looking into the application, the programmer discovers that because of
the design of the application, it is necessary to make changes to eachreport to support the new printers.
Which two design concepts most likely explain this situation.? (Choose two.)
A. Inheritance
B. Low cohesion
C. Tight coupling
D. High cohesion
E. Loose coupling
F. Object immutability
Answer: B,C

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3.Given:
5. class Building { }
6. public class Barn extends Building {
7. public static void main(String[] args) {
8. Building build1 = new Building();
9. Barn barn1 = new Barn();
10. Barn barn2 = (Barn) build1;
11. Object obj1 = (Object) build1;
12. String str1 = (String) build1;

NO.18 void a2() { }

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NO.1 A MIDlet has entered the paused state. Which is a valid action to attempt to make it active?
A. The MIDlet cannot revert back to the active state.
B. The MIDlet calls resumeRequest() through a timer.
C. The MIDlet calls its own startApp() method.
D. The MIDlet has to wait quietly to be rescheduled.
Answer: B

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the appropriate platform label on the class name. If the class exists in both CLDC and J2SE,
choose the "Exists in BOTH..." option, regardless of whether the package names are different.
Answer:

NO.3 How would a MIDlet that uses a GameCanvas efficiently update only a small region of the screen, from
the data in the off-screen buffer?
A. call flushGraphics(int, int, int, int) that specifies the region to be flushed
B. call serviceRepaints() and set a clip region on the Graphics object in paint()
C. Pixels that are NOT to be flushed should be made transparent.
D. write extra code to coalesce the flushGraphics() calls over many loops into one call
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which method is initially called when the MIDlet starts in response to a push notification?
A. PushRegistry.listConnections()
B. PushRegistry.notifyIncomingConnection()
C. MIDlet.startApp()
D. MIDlet.notifyApp()
E. MIDlet.pushApp()
F. MIDlet.resumeRequest()
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the minimum number of received SMS messages that a JTWI device must be able to
concatenate?
A. 5
B. 32
C. 10
D. 3
E. no minimum
Answer: D

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NO.6 Given:
21. TextField tf = new TextField("Memo", "", 50, TextField.ANY);
22. DateField df = new DateField("Date", DateField.DATE_TIME);
23. Form fm = new Form("Form demo");
24. Command cmCount = new Command("Word count", Command.ITEM, 1);
25. Command cmExit = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1);
26.
27. tf.addCommand(cmCount);
28. fm.append(df);
29. fm.append(tf);
30. fm.addCommand(cmExit);
31. fm.setCommandListener(this);
Which is true?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. The cmCount and cmExit commands is always available on fm, regardless of which Item is active.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The cmCount command is available only when tf is the active Item.
E. The cmExit command is available only when df is the active Item.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Given:
10. MessageConnection conn;
11.
12. public void startApp() {
13. try {
14. conn = (MessageConnection) Connector.open("cbs://:3382");
15. //...
17. } catch (Exception e) {
18. //...
20. }
21. }
22.
30. public void run() {
31. Message msg = conn.receive();
32. //...
40. conn.send(msg);
41. }
What is the result?
A. An error at line 40 causes an exception at runtime.
B. An error at line 14 causes compile to fail.
C. An error at line 31 causes an exception at runtime.
D. The code successfully sends a message.
E. An error at line 14 causes an exception at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which three statements are true regarding the handling of wireless connections? (Choose three.)
A. Devices can only support one HttpConnection at a time; therefore, network access from
multiple threads must be serialized.
B. The connection could unexpectedly terminate while processing the input or output streams.
C. Performing network operations on the same thread used by the display is likely to block
refreshes of the display until the network operations complete.
D. A network connection could interfere with other services on the device, such as the ability to receive
phone calls or SMS on a phone.
E. Network connections should never be performed on a separate thread, so problems can be handled
quickly.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 Which two are true about record stores? (Choose two.)
A. If two MIDlet suites each have a record store with the same name, then those suites CANNOT share
those identically named record stores.
B. A MIDlet CANNOT access a given record store using multiple simultaneous threads.
C. Record store names are case sensitive.
D. The API does NOT provide locking operations for record stores.
E. MIDlet suites that contain shared record stores are identified by using attributes from that suite's JAR
file.
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 Which two are true for List? (Choose two.)
A. You can add Command objects to a List without registering a CommandListener.
B. Images and text in a List CANNOT be changed once the List is created.
C. Traversing and scrolling in a List causes events that can be programmatically detected.
D. A CommandListener must be registered for the application to recognize user selections in a List.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each player state next to its description.
Answer:

NO.12 Which three are true.? (Choose three.)
A. A MIDlet suite consists of only one JAR file.
B. Different MIDlet suites can share data with each other.
C. A MIDlet suite can have more than one class that extends the MIDlet class.
D. A MIDlet suite is an array of MIDlet objects.
E. The names of MIDlet classes that belong to different MIDlet suites must be different.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
NewsMIDlet and CalendarMIDlet are in different MIDlet suites. Neither has any static push registrations.
Suppose NewsMIDlet registers dynamically for datagram push notifications on port 79.
What happens if a method CalendarMIDlet.init() attempts to open a UDPDatagramConnection on port
79?
A. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and removes NewsMIDlet's registration for datagram push
connections.
B. init() fails to open the connection.
C. init() succeeds only with user confirmation.
D. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and leaves untouched NewsMIDlet's registration for
datagram push connections.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which two are true regarding error handling for classes that exist in both CLDC and J2SE? (Choose
two.)
A. The set of error classes is essentially the same in CLDC and J2SE.
B. The set of error classes is much reduced in CLDC to help reduce the overhead of the JVM.
C. If a class throws an error in CLDC, it should throw the same error as in J2SE or its nearest superclass.
D. There is no correspondence between the errors defined by CLDC and J2SE because the needs of
CLDC and J2SE are so different.
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Given:
10. //...
20. try {
21. Hashtable table = new Hashtable();
22. for (;;) table.put(new Object(), new Object());
23. } catch (OutOfMemoryException e) {
24. Display.getDisplay().setCurrent(new Alert("Out of Memory!"));
25. }
26. //...
Which is true?
A. Out of Memory! is printed to the system console.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime but there is no guarantee an alert will be shown to the user.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The program hangs at line 22.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A Player plays a sound after start() is called. Which is the most efficient way to pause the playback so
that it may be started as soon as possible when required?
A. call setRate(0) on the player
B. call stop() on the player
C. call close() on the player
D. call System.gc() to collect those resources marked for garbage collection
Answer: B

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NO.17 Given the push connection string:
MIDlet-Push-1: socket://:79, com.sun.example.SampleChat, 192.3?.?.*
Which two addresses are allowed to push connection notifications to the application? (Choose two.)
A. 192.31.101.1
B. 192.32.1.101
C. 192.310.101.1
D. 192.3.1.101
E. 192.31.1.1
F. 192.310.10.1
Answer: B,E

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NO.18 Which two are true about errors and exceptions in a CLDC-compliant virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. A CLDC-compliant virtual machine must NOT throw a VirtualMachineError.
B. Developers are NOT allowed to handle errors.
C. Developers do NOT receive asynchronous exceptions from a CLDC-compliant virtual machine.
D. Developers must throw only checked (non-runtime) exceptions.
E. Rather than throwing the Error class specified by the Java Language Specification, the
CLDC-compliant virtual machine may throw a CLDC-supported superclass.
Answer: C,E

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NO.19 A MIDlet suite is signed using X.509 PKI. Which encoding format must be used for the certificate
entries in the JAD file?
A. yEnc
B. binary
C. none
D. base64
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which two methods are available in both the low-level and high-level APIs? (Choose two.)
A. getLayout()
B. getTitle()
C. isShown()
D. setFullScreenMode()
Answer: B,C

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the result?
A. myForm contains the string "run count: 2".
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. myForm contains the string "run count: 0".
D. myForm contains the string "run count: 1".
E. myForm contains the string "waiting...".
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which two are true about class file verification as defined by the CLDC specification? (Choose two.)
A. Verification is NOT required.
B. Verification can use a custom implementation.
C. Verification is completed at compile time and no further verification is necessary.
D. Verification can use the same implementation as defined in the JVM specification.
Answer: B,D

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NO.23 Which is true for Item?
A. The same Command may occur on more than one Item.
B. The same Item may be appended to more than one Form at the same time.
C. When adding a Command to an Item, specifying a command type other than Command.ITEM results
in a compilation failure.
D. Minimum and preferred size CANNOT be changed once an Item is created.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two are true assuming this method is in a MIDlet? (Choose two.)
A. The Chocolate Prefs choice is never displayed to the user.
B. Compilation fails due to a problem with code related to event handling.
C. The text "You made a choice" is displayed immediately after the user makes a selection.
D. The user can select more than one type of chocolate.
E. An exception occurs at runtime due to a problem related to the event handling code.
F. Anonymous inner classes must NOT be used as event handlers within a MIDlet.
Answer: C,D

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NO.25 Given:
10. //...
20. int[] foo = new int[10000];
21. foo = null;
22. System.gc();
23. //...
Which is true once the program execution reaches line 23?
A. The garbage collector suspends the program until more memory becomes available.
B. The garbage collector CANNOT reclaim the memory allocated to foo because the reference is
nulled out.
C. The garbage collector is triggered and memory is guaranteed to be reclaimed.
D. The garbage collector is triggered but there are no guarantees that any memory has been reclaimed.
Answer: D

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NO.26 obscure is a content type unsupported on a device that executes:
10. String locator = "http://foobar.sun.com/content.obscure";
11. Player player = Manager.createPlayer(locator);
Which is true?
A. The file is interpreted as an HTML file.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The file is interpreted as an ASCII file.
D. player is set to null.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-869   1Z0-869 original questions

NO.27 Which JAD attribute must be present to begin the MIDlet suite authentication process using X.509
PKI?
A. MIDlet-Permission
B. MIDlet-Jar-RSA-SHA1
C. MIDlet-Certificate-n-m
D. MIDlet-Permission-Opt
Answer: B

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NO.28 Given:
15. String addr = "sms://+14155557296";
16. MessageConnection conn
17. = (MessageConnection) Connector.open(addr);
18. // insert code here
19. message.setPayloadData(imageBytes);
Assume imageBytes is a valid byte array.
Which statement, inserted at line 18, causes the rest of the code fragment to compile correctly?
A. Message message = new BinaryMessage();
B. BinaryMessage message = (BinaryMessage)
conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
C. Message message = conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
D. BinaryMessage message = new BinaryMessage();
Answer: B

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NO.29 A suite is signed with a X.509 PKI certificate. The root certificate is not present in the device's keystore.
What is the installation result?
A. The JAD file is rejected. Installation fails.
B. The JAD file is rejected. It installs in the untrusted domain.
C. Authentication fails. It installs in the untrusted domain.
D. Authentication fails. Installation fails.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the GameCanvas code:
10. public void run() {
11. try {
12. Graphics g = getGraphics();
13. Image dog = Image.createImage("/dog.png");
14. Sprite s = new Sprite(dog, 98, 88);
15. s.setPosition(0,0);
16. while (gameActive) {
17. s.setFrame(0);
18. s.paint(g);
19. flushGraphics();
20. s.setFrame(1);
21. s.paint(g);
22. flushGraphics();
23. }
24. } catch (Exception ex) {
25. //...
31. }
32. }
Assuming that gameActive is true, and that run() is called as a result of a new thread's start() invocation,
what is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime because of an error with the arguments to the Sprite
constructor.
B. An IndexOutOfBoundsException occurs due to an error in line 17 or line 20.
C. The dog on the left side of the image file appears on the display, but the dog on the right side is never
seen.
D. Compilation fails because Sprite does NOT have a paint(Graphics g) method.
E. An animation appears that continuously cycles between the two versions of the dog.
Answer: E

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NO.1 You have a requirement to configure two new network ranges. One of these networks requires 200 IP
addresses and the other requires 600 IP addresses. Which network should you use to obtain the most
efficient usage of IP address space.?
A. 10.12.60/24 and 10.12.48/21
B. 192.168.2/24 and 192.168.3.0/23
C. 10.10.10/24 and 192.168/16
D. 10.12.53/24 and 10.12.48/22
Answer: A

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
The UDP Transport layer protocol receives data from the application and encapsulates the data in UDP
datagrams. UDP datagrams have a leading header section.
Place the items on the appropriate UDP header section.
Note: Only four items are used.
Answer:

NO.3 You configure an NTP server to use its local undisciplined clock and also an external server at address
192.20.20.1. Additionally, you create a fudge line:
fudge 127.127.1.0 stratum 12
Which is the purpose of the fudge line?
A. to ensure that the synchronization is checked at 12:00 P.M. each day
B. to ensure that the server's local clock is seen as a stratum 12 server
C. to make the xntpd daemon check the clients clock every 12 minutes
D. to ensure that only servers below stratum 12 are queried
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system administrator has configured a Solaris system to operate as an NTP server supporting peer
NTP servers and clients on a local subnet. The NTP configuration file contains the line: enable auth
What impact does this have on NTP behavior?
A. The network router must broadcast the NTP server IP address.
B. All NTP clients on the local subnet must be configured to support key negotiation.
C. The server is authoritative for a reference clock.
D. All NTP servers on the local subnet must be configured to support key negotiation.
E. Time adjustments are only be accepted by Stratum 0 servers.
Answer: D

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NO.5 While making configuration changes on your DHCP server, you want to test the changes on a Solaris
OS workstation, which is configured as a DHCP client. Rather than rebooting the client or waiting for the
DHCP lease to expire, which command can you use to cause the workstation to re-query the DHCP
server?
A. dhcpagent -f
B. ifconfig hme0 down; ifconfig hme0 up
C. ifconfig hme0 dhcp release; ifconfig hme0 dhcp start
D. This cannot be done. You must reboot.
E. svcadm restart dhcpagent
Answer: C

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
In the context of writing filtering rule sets for the Solaris 10 OS IP Filter firewall, complete the rule that
blocks outgoing ICMP echo replies on the qfe0 interface.
Use three options to complete the rule.
Answer:

NO.7 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place each frame error on its description.
Answer:

NO.8 You configure Solaris IP Filter on a Solaris system named myhost as a host-based firewall. While
attempting to telnet to myhost from another host named remotehost, you receive this error:
$ telnet myhost
Trying 192.168.1.100...
telnet: Unable to connect to remote host: Connection timed out
You run netstat -a on myhost and find this entry:
Local Address Remote Address Swind Send-Q Rwind Recv-Q State
myhost.23 remotehost.39846 0 0 49640 0 SYN_RCVD
What is the cause of this problem?
A. myhost and remotehost are on different networks.
B. The ipf kernel module is not loaded.
C. remotehost does not have a route to myhost.
D. Telnet is an insecure protocol and therefore Solaris IP Filter always blocks it.
E. myhost has a block out rule for traffic to remotehost.
Answer: E

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
You have configured a JumpStart server. When you attempt to install a client machine, it starts booting,
but stops responding shortly afterwards.
Which command, when run on the JumpStart server, helps diagnose this problem?
A. snoop 8:0:20:fd:e9:3c
B. ndd -get /dev/eri0 errors
C. /usr/sbin/in.rarpd -d -a
D. snoop -d eri0
E. snoop dhcp
Answer: A

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NO.10 A newly installed system is experiencing network performance problems. You suspect it may be related
to the duplex or speed settings on the hme0 interface. Which two commands check the duplex and speed
of the hme0 interface? (Choose two.)
A. ndd -get /dev/hme duplex
B. netstat hme link_mode
C. netstat -I hme
D. ndd -get /dev/hme link_mode
E. ndd -get /dev/hme link_status
F. ndd -get /dev/hme link_speed
G. ndd -get /dev/hme speed Answer: D,F

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
You configure a 6to4 router, and try to communicate from system A to system B. The interfaces of the
source and destination systems are shown in the exhibit. Your ping:
systemA# ping -s fe80::203:baff:fe02:7aa5
yields:
ICMPv6 Address Unreachable from gateway 2002:8193:c9f::1
for icmp6 from 2002:8193:c9f::1 to fe80::203:baff:fe02:7aa5
What is the cause of the problem?
A. You did not add a default route for the IPv6 traffic.
B. You can NOT reach the system on the local link address.
C. You do not have a route to gateway 2002:8193:c9f::1.
D. The system you are pinging on does not have IPv6 configured.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A section of the ifconfig -a command is run on a Solaris system with Probe-Based IPMP configured as
follows:
hme0:1:
flags=9040843<UP,BROADCAST,RUNNING,MULTICAST,DEPRECATED,IPV4,NOFAILOVER>
mtu 1500 index 2 inet 192.168.1.51 netmask ffffff00 broadcast 192.168.1.255
The address shown is marked as deprecated.
In which two situations are addresses that are marked deprecated used as source addresses for
outbound packets? (Choose two.)
A. when the system acts as a router
B. when there are no other addresses available in the interface group
C. when a TCP connection is requested
D. when a static default router is configured for the system
E. when an application has been explicitly bound to the 192.168.1.51 address Answer: B,E

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A system on your network is named sys-01. This system has Solaris 10 OS with packet filtering enabled
and configured. The Solaris IP Filter configuration, stored in the /etc/ipf/ipf.conf file of this system was:
pass in quick proto tcp from any to any port = 22 keep state block in all and allowed an ssh connection
into your sys-01 system from both hme0 and hme1 interfaces. Due to a change in your network, you had
to modify the packet filtering rules of the sys-01 system. The packet filtering rules now allow ssh
connections into sys-01 only using the hme0 interface. The following changes are made to /etc/ipf/ipf.conf:
pass in quick on hme0 proto tcp from any to 192.168.1.1/32
port = 22 keep state block in all
Which command loads the new packet filtering rules?
A. ipmon -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
B. ipf -Fo -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
C. ipf -Fa -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
D. ippool -Fa -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
E. ipf -f /etc/ipf/ipf.conf
Answer: C

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NO.14 Company A owns, and is authoritative, for the domain aco.com. Company A is in the process of
consolidating systems as a result of the purchase of Company B. As part of this transition effort, network
administrators have configured Company A's DNS server zone files to include and become authoritative
for Company B's bco.com domain. The administrators want to turn off Company B's DNS servers. Which
two steps should be completed prior to this shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. initiate zone transfer to A.root-servers.net
B. create an aco.com to bco.com reverse zone configuration file
C. reduce the TTL value for the aco.com domain
D. require hosts on bco.com to update the IP address used for DNS resolution
E. update the .com Top-Level name server entries for bco.com
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 In the context of packet filtering, the Solaris IP Filter firewall provides a set of user level utility and
kernel modules. Which two are kernel modules of Solaris IP Filter? (Choose two.)
A. ipfs
B. ippool
C. ipmon
D. ipf
E. ipnat
F. pfil
Answer: D,F

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NO.16 A Solaris 10 OS server has packet filtering enabled. Which command displays information on stdout
regarding packets that match rules?
A. syslogd -d sysout
B. ipmon
C. ipf -l block
D. netstat -a block
Answer: B

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NO.17 You want to configure the hme0 interface with an IPv6 address and the prefix fec0. Which two
configurations achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0:1 contains a host name, which is defined in the /etc/hosts file.
This entry has an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
B. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0:1 contains a host name, which is defined in the /etc/inet/ipnodes file.
This entry has an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
C. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0 contains an addif hostname entry in addition to the normal host name.
This cross-references an entry in /etc/inet/ipnodes with IPv6 address prefix fec0:.
D. The file /etc/hostname6.hme0 contains a host name defined in the /etc/inet/ipnodes file. This entry has
an IPv6 address prefix of fec0.
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 You want to modify the failure detection time for IPMP so that failures are detected more quickly on the
IPMP group containing the IPv6 interface eri0. Which file you do edit?
A. /kernel/drv/ipmp.conf
B. /etc/default/mpathd6
C. /kernel/drv/ipmp6.conf
D. /etc/default/mpathd
E. /etc/hostname6.eri0
Answer: D

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NO.19 Given the following snoop trace:
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.73040)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.79499)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.79606)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.86071)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.86199)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.92638)
sys4 -> sys10 NTP client [st=0] (2005-01-26 17:13:29.92734)
sys10 -> sys4 NTP server [st=4] (2005-01-26 17:15:08.99198)
Why do the system clocks remain unsynchronized despite several queries?
A. The NTP client requires more updates from the NTP server.
B. The NTP client is configured as a broadcast client.
C. The NTP server daemon is disabled.
D. The /etc/init/ntp.client file is misconfigured.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Protocols are used by computer networks to communicate or exchange data. A data
communication protocol is a set of rules that must be followed by electronic devices to
communicate with each other. Which three describe these sets of rules? (Choose three.)
A. Transport - Manages the connections between cooperating applications
B. Timing - Speed matching and sequencing
C. Application - Handles the detail and functions
D. Internet - Manages data addressing
E. Syntax - Data format and coding
F. Semantics - Controls information and error handling
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.21 The system administrator needs to configure a static, default route to 192.168.0.1. The netmask is
255.255.255.240. Which two commands are used to ensure that the default route is installed immediately
and at the next reboot? (Choose two.)
A. route add default 192.168.0.1
B. routeadm -u -a default 192.168.0.1
C. echo 192.168.0.1/25 > /etc/defaultrouter
D. routeadm add default -netmask 255.255.255.240 192.168.0.1
E. echo 192.168.0.1 > /etc/defaultrouter
Answer: A,E

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NO.22 The system administrator of a firewall running Solaris IP Filter writes an updated set of rules in
/root/newrules. Before implementing the rules, the rule set needs to be tested for syntax errors. Which
command accomplishes this?
A. inetadm restart svc:/network/ipfilter:/root/newrules
B. ipf -Fa -f /root/newrules
C. ipf -n -f /root/newrules
D. svcadm restart svc:/network/ipfilter:/root/newrules
Answer: C

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NO.23 A system is being configured as a network boot server. Which three must be present or online for the
boot server to successfully answer RARP requests? (Choose three.)
A. /etc/inet/hosts
B. /etc/ethers
C. svc:/network/ethers
D. /etc/resolv.conf E. svc:/network/rarp
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.24 Given the following output:
Routing Table: IPv4
Destination Gateway Flags Ref Use Interface
192.168.1.0 192.168.1.1 U 1 0 hme0
224.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 U 1 0 hme0
default sys-gw UG 1 0 127.0.0.1 127.0.0.1 UH 2 6 lo0
This output shows that the system has a default gateway set. How can the default gateway be set?
A. set by in.routed through the RDISC protocol
B. set manually through: route add sys-gw default
C. set by inetd through the use of configuration text files
D. set through the command: routeadm add default -UG sys-gw
Answer: A

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NO.25 An administrator is setting up the new Solaris platform server, logger, and has forgotten the
appropriate mail relay server to use for this subnet.
# cat /etc/resolv.conf
domainname central.company.com
nameserver 170.63.2.10
nameserver 163.120.15.10
Which command can the administrator use to discover this information?
A. cat /etc/nsswitch.conf
B. nsloookup type=A logger.central.company.com
C. dig -relay 163.120.15.10
D. dig central.company.com mx
E. dig mailrelay logger.central.company.com
Answer: D

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NO.26 Ethernet frames include a unique address indicating the source of the frame. What is this unique
address called?
A. IP address
B. Calling Party Address
C. MAC address
D. source VLAN
Answer: C

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NO.27 The TCP protocol has an algorithm that implements flow control on both the sender side and the
receiver side. What is the function of the congestion window on the sending side?
A. adjusts the rate at which data can be sent
B. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be received
C. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be sent
D. advertises the amount of data loss
E. adjusts the rate at which data can be received
Answer: A

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NO.28 The TCP protocol has an algorithm that implements flow control on both the sender side and the
receiver side. What is the function of the congestion window on the sending side?
A. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be sent
B. advertises the maximum amount of data that can be received
C. advertises the amount of data loss
D. adjusts the rate at which data can be sent
E. adjusts the rate at which data can be received
Answer: D

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NO.29 A host's IPv6 link-local unicast address is based on the host's Ethernet address. A 16-bit code is
inserted in the 64-bit Interface ID portion of the IPv6 address to enable a 48-bit Ethernet address to
become 64 bits in length. Which value represents this added 16-bit code?
A. FFFF
B. FFEE
C. FFFE
D. FE80
E. FEC0
Answer: C

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NO.30 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place each network component on the layer at which it operates.
Answer:

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NO.1 The universal adpter in Informatica, is used to load data from what two sources?
A. EBS
B. JD Edwards
C. Legacy OLTP Systems
D. Non Oracle Sources
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which three calendar types are supported by BI Applications 7.9.6 rlease?
A. Enterprise
B. 13 Period, 4-4-5
C. Fiscal and Gregorian
D. 15 Period
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.3 What is the default location where paramether files are created by DAC?
A. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\server\parameters
B. $DAC_HOME\Informatica\parameters
C. $DAC_HOME\ parameters
D. $DAC_HOME\ server\infa_shared\BWParam
Answer: B

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NO.4 A large insurance company ABC-Safe uses PeopleSoft and Hyperion Planning & Budgeting for
Financial Analytics and a third-party software package for HR Compensatio. ABC-Safe wants to have a
consolidated picture of its finances and compensation packages. What would you advise?
A. Immediately enhance the existing Oracle BI Financial Application with HR analytics.
B. Perform a fit-gap analysis on the usability of the ETL for HR analytics and cross functionality with
Financial Applications and present a business case for extending the Oracle BI Applications environment
with Oracle BI HR analytics or enhance the existing BI applications environment with HR data by building
the ETL, enhance the BI repository, Reports& Dashboards, security and other needed elements.
C. Oracle BI applications cannot be enhanced by data from third-party software packages.
D. Offer implementing Oracle BI HR Analytics, inckuding a calculation for reusing prebuilt ETL using the
Universal connector.
E. Offer implementing Oracle BI Standard Edition One, including a Compensation warehouse setup in
Warehouse Builder.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which three variable tu\ype does the BI Applications data model support for specifying currencies?
A. Document
B. Local
C. Global
D. Override
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.6 A new source is available containing several big tables with over 2 million rows of data. Some of this
data is needs in Oracle BI analysis, combind with existing data sources. What are your options to enable
this combined analysis?
A. Analyze the needed data and needed granularity. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and pertition navigation. Enable cross analysis in the logical layer. Use
simple requests and analyze the request performance on the new data.
B. Apply a type 2 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
C. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter to include the necessaryt data warehouse
objects and modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the Bi repository with the new data
warehouse objects and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in
the logical layer.
D. Analyze the needed data and needed granularily. If applicable create aggregation tables and
partitioned tables in the source database. Apply a type 1 customization in Informatica PowerCenter and
modify the DAC with appropriate objects. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects
and enable aggregate navigation and partition navigation.
E. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 2 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Apply changes in DAC to read the new source data have execution plans load the needed
data into the data warehouse. Model the BI repositorty with the new data warehouse objects and enable
aggregate navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
F. Normalize the new data source into smaller tables and apply a type 1 customization in Informatica
PowerCenter. Model the BI repository with the new data warehouse objects and enable aggregate
navigation and partition navigation. Enable cross-analysis in the logical layer.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How can you be sure to access a specific data source in a default Oracle BI Applications installation for
users working from a client machine? Assume that log level 2 has been enabled.
A. With log level 2 or higer enabled in the NqsConfig. ini, you can check the SQL from the query log of a
specific Answers request. Read the SQL and check the connection pool(s) used and the data source
name(s).
B. The only data source in a standard BI Applications installation is the data warehouse. This source is
defined in DAC in the Setup View under Physical Data Surces. You can alx\so check the (native)
Connection credentials.
C. Sources can range from data wareshouse to OLTP systems. Their connections are named in
connection pools in the BI reposity. Using these connection names you can check the (native) connection
credentials.
D. All physical connections are defined in Informatica Powercenter Repository Manager. Log in and check
all connection credentials.
E. Users can log in to Aswers, the BI repository, DAC or Informatica to check connection credentials and
data source names.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The webcat structure, along with various other presentation parameters are stored in: .?
A. DBFeatures. ini
B. Instanceconfig. xml
C. NQSConfig. ini
D. Repository File (.rpd)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which condition results in a source record being neglected during incremental load?
A. INTIAL_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
B. LAST_UPDATE_DATE >= LAST_EXTRACT_DATE
C. LAST_UPDATE+DATE >= INITIAL_EXTRACT_DATE
D. LAST_UPDATE_DATE <= LAST_ EXTRACT_DATE
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which is true regarding the location of Informatica PowerCenter client tools installation?
A. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the transactional database.
B. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC Server.
C. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the OBAW database.
D. the client tools should be installed on the same machine as the DAC client.
Answer: D

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