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Exam Code: E20-818
Exam Name: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 161 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 A customer has implemented Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 in an SRDF environment with replicas
being taken at the disaster recovery (DR) site. During testing of this solution, they have failed over
Exchange operations to the DR site. The Exchange mailbox server appears to come online, but user
mailboxes are inaccessible. The Exchange Management Console shows all mailboxes marked with a
small red "x" over the mailbox icons.
Which course of action will resolve this issue?
A.Ensure the Exchange mailbox server at the DR site can communicate with an Active Directory Domain
Controller
B.Recover the database from the BCV copies available at the DR site
C.Ensure that the World Wide Web service on the Exchange server at the DR site has started
successfully
D.Recover the database from the remote BCV copies available at the primary site
Answer:A

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NO.2 A customer has been creating replicas of several Microsoft Exchange mailbox servers using Replication
Manager. They have recently added a new Exchange Server 2007 mailbox host to the environment.
In addition, the customer has created a scheduled job to create replicas of five storage groups in
consecutive order. Since doing so, they notice that the newly added replica jobs seem to take a very long
time to complete.
What is the source of the problem?
A.NTFS volumes containing the databases were not formatted with the correct cluster size
B.Replication Manager job should have been configured to create the replicas simultaneously
C.Latest Replication Manager Client Service Pack was not installed on the Exchange server
D.Exchange management utilities were not installed on the Replication Manager mount host
Answer:A

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NO.3 A composite group spanning two Symmetrix arrays is set up to run SRDF/Star using Cascaded SRDF
as illustrated in the exhibit. What is one of the necessary conditions before the SRDF daemon at Site A
will perform an MSC cycle switch?
A.Transmit delta sets from Site B to Site C have finished
B.SDDF bitmaps have been swapped at Site A
C.Invalid track count between Sites A and C is less than 30000
D.SYMCLI_STAR_ALLOW_CASCADED_CONFIGURATION option must be enabled in the option file
Answer:A

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NO.4 A new Cascaded SRDF customer is running in SRDF/A mode from the source (R1) site to the
disk-based secondary (R21) site. In this scenario, which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and
the R2 sites?
A.Adaptive Copy Disk
B.Adaptive Copy Write Pending
C.Synchronous
D.Asynchronous
Answer:A

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NO.5 A customer has three data centers that are used to run SRDF/AR multi-hop on Symmetrix DMX-4
arrays.
Production is located at Site A
Secondary site is located at Site B
Tertiary site is located at Site C
In the event of a Site A failure, the customer wants to be able to fail over to Site C while retaining the
ability to have remote data protection. Which solution will offer the best RPO and RTO for this customer?
A.Cascaded SRDF
B.Latest version of SRDF/AR
C.Concurrent SRDF
D.SRDF/EDP
Answer:A

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NO.6 An Microsoft Exchange administrator has recently encountered an issue with one of the databases in
their Exchange 2007 environment. The decision was made to perform a partial restore of only the single
database.
Based on EMC and Microsoft best practice, what are the proper ordered steps needed to complete this
task?
A.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Restore the database replica. 3) Remove the .chk
file from the system path folder. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
B.1) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 2) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
C.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Restore the database replica. 4) Remount all databases in the storage group.
D.1) Dismount all databases in the storage group. 2) Remove the .chk file from the system path folder. 3)
Remount all databases in the storage group. 4) Restore the database replica.
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer's SQL database has been experiencing performance degradation every time a particular
query is run. When designing the storage layout, all user databases were properly sized according to
EMC best practices.
Which storage configuration could be the source of the problem?
A.Tempdb and user databases are sharing spindles
B.MDF and LDF files are not sharing spindles
C.RAID 5 protection has been used for Tempdb
D.Data files are spread over striped metavolumes
Answer:A

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NO.8 A customer is running Concurrent SRDF/Star. The disaster recovery (DR) plan allows for the workload
to be switched to either the synchronous site or the asynchronous site. In addition, part of their DR plan is
to enable SRDF/Star protection once the workload site comes back online.
Which advice should be given to the customer?
A.If production fails over to the synchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration after
the return of the original workload site.
B.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is not possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
C.If production fails over to either the asynchronous site or synchronous site, it is possible to run in a
Star-protected configuration from either site after the return of the original workload site.
D.If production fails over to the asynchronous site, it is possible to run in a Star-protected configuration
after the return of the original workload site.
Answer:A

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NO.9 A customer is planning an SRDF/Star configuration as shown in the exhibit. The customer wants to
switch production to the synchronous target in the event of a workload site fault.
In addition to the Base and SRDF Solutions Enabler licenses, which licenses are recommended at the
synchronous target?
A.TimeFinder/Clone and TimeFinder/CG
B.TimeFinder/Mirror and TimeFinder/Clone
C.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/CG
D.TimeFinder/Snap and TimeFinder/Mirror
Answer:A

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NO.10 A Microsoft SQL Server database administrator wants to execute backups using Solutions Enabler SRM
functionality. Which ODBC variable(s) needs to be set to enable the symioctl and symrdb command set?
A.SYMCLI_RDB "CONNECT" and "TYPE" environment variables
B.SYMCLI_RDB "NAME" and "TYPE" environment variables
C.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "Connect" to the database "username/password"
D.Only the SYMCLI_RDB "TYPE" variable to "sqlserver"
Answer:A

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NO.11 A customer wants to use Replication Manager to replicate and mount, at the file group level, a Microsoft
SQL Server database. What must be done before creating a Replication Manager file group replication
job?
A.Ensure no other data files are on the same volume with the selected file group
B.Copy the log files along with the file group data files
C.Use the recover database option when mounting a file group
D.Create a TimeFinder device group that contains only the file group data files
Answer:A

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NO.12 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is migrating their SQL server from a NAS back end to a new RAID 1-protected Symmetrix
V-Max SE array. Perfmon was used to create a log view of an average day's activity against the database
LUN as represented in the exhibit. Unfortunately the database's data file and transaction log are located
on the same LUN. The database administrator has informed you that this database typically processes 25
GB worth of transactions over the course of their 12-hour business day.
Which discount in IOPS should be taken before determining the number of spindles required for the data
file LUN?
A.75
B.152
C.176
D.365
Answer:A

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NO.13 A customer wants to provide remote disaster recovery (DR) for several critical mailbox servers in their
Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 environment. Local recoverability is provided by creating replicas of their
critical databases.
The customer's DR site is located 20 km away. They have already provisioned the necessary failover host
on the DR site, as well as the required Active Directory infrastructure needed to support a failover.
However, they want to minimize the total number of database copies required to provide basic failover
capabilities for the Exchange server.
Which solution would you recommend to provide remote point-of-failure recovery with the fewest local
and remote database copies?
A.R1-R2-BCV
B.Mixed Mirroring
C.STD-R1BCV-R2-BRBCV
D.STD-R1BCV-R2
Answer:A

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NO.14 In the event of a physical disk spindle failure, how would a customer with Microsoft SQL Server
maximize availability?
A.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 6 volumes
B.Logs should be on RAID 1 volumes with data volumes on separate RAID 5 volumes
C.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 5 volumes
D.Logs and data files should be on separate RAID 1-protected volumes
Answer:A

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NO.15 An SRDF/Star solution has been proposed. The customer is slow to accept the solution because they
are concerned about the reliability of the RDF daemon.
How would you address the customer's concern?
A.RDF daemons will be deployed on multiple management stations at the workload site. The RDF
daemons will cooperate with each other.
B.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array and has built-in redundancy.
C.RDF daemon process runs on the Symmetrix array. If the workload site RDF daemon fails, the RDF
daemon from one of the other sites will take over.
D.RDF daemons will be deployed on one management station at each of the three sites. If the workload
site RDF daemon fails, one of the RDF daemons from the other two sites will take over.
Answer:A

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NO.16 As reflected in the exhibit, a customer has a Cascaded SRDF/Star environment. Site B fails and they
undertake a reconfiguration to provide remote data protection between Sites A and C.
What is used to determine the invalid tracks that must be moved from Site A to Site C?
A.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A
B.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site A and a bitmap at Site C
C.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site B
D.Inclusive OR of two SDDF bitmaps at Site C
Answer:A

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NO.17 Group Name Services (GNS) is enabled in an SRDF/Star solution. What is a benefit of GNS in a
SRDF/Star environment?
A.Facilitates management of SRDF/Star when there are multiple management hosts at each location
B.Distributes the Star internal definition file to the Symmetrix arrays at both target locations
C.Propagates the composite group definitions over SRDF links
D.Restarts the SRDF daemon in the event it stops unexpectedly
Answer:A

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NO.18 A customer wants to use TimeFinder/Exchange Integration Module (TF/EIM) to create daily local
replicas of a critical Microsoft Exchange 2007 mailbox server. Using Terminal Services, they connect
remotely to the backup server and execute the following command:
exbackup2007 -v -vss -s [servername\] -preestablish
The command runs up until the point where TF/EIM attempts to mount the volumes, then it fails. Why is
the process unable to complete?
A.Exbackup is not supported using a terminal session
B.Correct VSS Provider was not installed
C."copyonly" switch must be specified the first time a backup is run
D.Exbackup does not have the permissions needed to run on the backup host
Answer:A

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NO.19 A customer is migrating their Microsoft Exchange 2007 server from a NAS back end to a new
Symmetrix V-Max SE array. As illustrated in the exhibit, perfmon was used to create a log view of an
average day's activity against the database LUN of the busiest datastore in the Exchange environment.
This will serve as the performance benchmark for all other database LUNs. There are an additional four
mailbox databases on this server.
How many RAID 1-protected 15k rpm spindles are required to satisfy the performance needs of the
customer for all the mailbox databases on this server?
A.10
B.26
C.38
D.50
Answer:D

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NO.20 Refer to the Exhibit.You have been asked to configure a Cascaded SRDF solution at a customer site.
The production site will be at Site A, the synchronous target will be at Site B, and the asynchronous target
at Site C.
Which kind of RDF devices will be needed at each site?
A.R1 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
B.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R22 at Site C
C.R11 at Site A, R21 at Site B, and R2 at Site C
D.R1 at Site A, R2 at Site B, and R21 at Site C
Answer:A

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Exam Code: E20-002
Exam Name: EMC (Cloud Infrastructure and Services Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 As an organization leverages more resources from Cloud service providers, which expense of the
organization would be expected to grow larger?
A. Power and energy
B. Management
C. Infrastructure
D. Operational
Answer: D

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NO.2 What best describes the "metered service" characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. Consumers are billed based on resource usage.
B. Services are provisioned based on their demand.
C. Metering services are created when required from the resource pools.
D. Metering services can scale up and down based on resource usage.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which parameter uniquely identifies a switch in a SAN environment?
A. Area ID
B. Port ID
C. Domain ID
D. WWN
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the Cloud service model offered by EMC Mozy.?
A. Software-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
D. Virtualization-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component of a compute system performs the creation and control of logical storage?
A. Volume Manager
B. Operating System
C. DBMS
D. Application
Answer: A

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NO.6 In which Cloud deployment model would an organization see operational expenditures grow in
proportion to capital expenditures?
A. On-premise Private Cloud
B. External Private Cloud
C. Public Cloud
D. Hybrid Cloud
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Cloud service model allows the user to run any operating system and application?
A. Platform-as-a-Service
B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which component retrieves data from disk in an Intelligent Storage System?
A. Front-end
B. Cache
C. LUN
D. Back-end
Answer: D

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NO.9 An organization runs a proprietary operating system for its custom applications. System performance
has been declining at an increasing rate. They would like to leverage a Cloud solution to address their
problem.
Which Cloud service model would be appropriate for them?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which Cloud service model is most appropriate for application development?
A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service
B. Platform-as-a-Service
C. Software-as-a-Service
D. IT-as-a-Service
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which problem is addressed by RAID technologies?
A. Data corruption
B. Data backup
C. Data loss
D. Data security
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which is used to logically group FC ports?
A. Zone
B. VLAN
C. Mask
D. ISL
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which RAID type uses parity to protect against data loss?
A. RAID 3
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1
D. Nested
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which is a benefit of server clustering?
A. High CPU utilization
B. High availability
C. High memory utilization
D. High security
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which RAID types use no parity in protecting against data loss?
A. RAID 1 and Nested
B. RAID 0 and RAID 6
C. RAID 3 and RAID 5
D. RAID 5 and Nested
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E10-001
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NO.1 An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application
data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?
A. Source devices must be healthy
B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices
C. Save location size must be equal to the size of all source devices
D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet
communications?
A. Converged network adapter
B. TCP Offload Engine NIC
C. FCIP bridging adapter
D. iSCSI host bus adapter
Answer: A

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NO.3 What defines the time taken to position the read/write head across the platter with a radial movement
in a disk drive?
A. Seek time
B. Rotational latency
C. Data transfer time
D. Service time
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is a characteristic of unified storage?
A. Supports multiple protocols for data access and managed through a single management interface
B. Supports a common protocol for data access and managed through a unified management interface
C. Provides compute, storage, and network virtualization products in one solution
D. Stores all data in the form of objects and managed through a unified management interface
Answer: A

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NO.5 What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?
A. Area on which the read/write head rests
B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data
C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters
D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is a key benefit of virtualization?
A. Improved resource utilization
B. Improved performance
C. Enhanced interoperability
D. Unlimited resource scaling
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which cloud computing capability enables monitoring and reporting resource usage?
A. Metering
B. Pooling
C. Self-service requesting
D. Publishing
Answer: A

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NO.8 What does the area ID of the FC address identify.?
A. Group of ports within a switch
B. An individual port within a fabric
C. Location of the name server within the fabric
D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is a benefit of cloud computing over traditional computing?
A. Reduces the time to provision and deploy new applications
B. Eliminates consumer's IT operational expenditure
C. Enables the use of proprietary APIs to access IT resources
D. Lowers migration cost and prevents vendor lock-in
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement describes a denial of service attack?
A. Prevents authorized users from accessing the resources and services
B. Prohibits attempts to repair the resources and services after an attack
C. Attempts to provide false information by impersonating someone s identity
D. Prevents unauthorized users to access the resources and services
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a key security consideration when a NAS device enables sharing of the same data among
UNIX and Microsoft Windows users?
A. NAS device must map UNIX permissions to Windows and vice versa
B. NAS defines and maintains ownership to the objects
C. NIS server must separately maintain SIDs for UNIX and Windows environments
D. Object permissions are not defined in advance and assigned dynamically
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?
A. RecoverPoint
B. NetWorker
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?
A. IQN
B. EUI
C. WWNN
D. WWPN
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is an accurate statement about the Data Center Bridging Exchange protocol?
A. Enables Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to convey and configure their features with
other CEE devices
B. Creates virtual FCoE links over an existing Ethernet network to transport FC frames over virtual links
independently
C. Enables an FCoE switch to send signals to other FCoE switches that need to stop or slow down their
transmissions
D. Enables an FCoE switch to transport both TCP/IP and FC frames over a single virtual FCoE link
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved
as it was received?
A. Integrity
B. Availability
C. Security
D. Performance
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to grow and shrink the demand for
resources dynamically?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the
host when it has not been accessed for a while?
A. LRU
B. HWM
C. LWM
D. MRU
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which operation is performed while creating a VM snapshot?
A. Create a delta file to record changes to the virtual disk since the session is activated
B. Capture the configuration data of a VM to create an identical copy of the VM
C. Create a journal volume to update changes to the snapshot
D. Create a Gold
copy of the snapshot before copying changes to the virtual disk
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?
A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume
B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration
C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine
D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?
A. Defining cloud service attributes
B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers
C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer
D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services
Answer: A

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Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator )
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NO.1 Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?
A. engage in damage control
B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
D. qualify you as an expert witness
Answer: D

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NO.2 A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited
adult websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect
did indeed visit these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the
cookie cache. Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the
investigator do to prove the violation? Choose the most feasible option.
A. Image the disk and try to recover deleted files
B. Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
C. Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
D. Approach the websites for evidence
Answer: A

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NO.3 What type of attack occurs when an attacker can force a router to stop forwarding packets by
flooding the router with many open connections simultaneously so that all the hosts behind the
router are effectively disabled?
A. digital attack
B. denial of service
C. physical attack
D. ARP redirect
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four
30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for
you to acquire digital evidence from this network?
A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace
B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file
C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC
D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file
Answer: C

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NO.5 What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. FAT16
D. FAT12
Answer: D

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NO.6 A(n) _____________________ is one that's performed by a computer program rather than the
attacker manually performing the steps in the attack sequence.
A. blackout attack
B. automated attack
C. distributed attack
D. central processing attack
Answer: B

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NO.7 When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a
whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what
U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?
A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
Answer: D

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NO.8 It takes _____________ mismanaged case/s to ruin your professional reputation as a computer
forensics examiner?
A. by law, three
B. quite a few
C. only one
D. at least two
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are working for a large clothing manufacturer as a computer forensics investigator and are
called in to investigate an unusual case of an employee possibly stealing clothing designs from
the company and selling them under a different brand name for a different company. What you
discover during the course of the investigation is that the clothing designs are actually original
products of the employee and the company has no policy against an employee selling his own
designs on his own time. The only thing that you can find that the employee is doing wrong is that
his clothing design incorporates the same graphic symbol as that of the company with only the
wording in the graphic being different. What area of the law is the employee violating?
A. trademark law
B. copyright law
C. printright law
D. brandmark law
Answer: A

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NO.10 In the context of file deletion process, which of the following statement holds true?
A. When files are deleted, the data is overwritten and the cluster marked as available
B. The longer a disk is in use, the less likely it is that deleted files will be overwritten
C. While booting, the machine may create temporary files that can delete evidence
D. Secure delete programs work by completely overwriting the file in one go
Answer: C

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NO.11 The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on:
A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows
Answer: B

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NO.12 A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is
an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the
attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the
excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting,
basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.)
03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084
47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............
00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ...............
3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.

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NO.1 Which of the following Wi-Fi chalking methods refers to drawing symbols in public places to
advertise open Wi-Fi networks?
A. WarWalking
B. WarFlying
C. WarChalking
D. WarDhving
Answer: C

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NO.2 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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NO.3 When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from
the
most volatile to the least volatile
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is not a part of securing and evaluating electronic crime
scene
checklist?
A. Locate and help the victim
B. Transmit additional flash messages to other responding units
C. Request additional help at the scene if needed
D. Blog about the incident on the internet
Answer: D

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NO.5 Networks are vulnerable to an attack which occurs due to overextension of bandwidth,
bottlenecks, network data interception, etc.
Which of the following network attacks refers to a process in which an attacker changes his or her
IP address so that he or she appears to be someone else?
A. IP address spoofing
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Denial of Service attack
D. Session sniffing
Answer: A

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NO.1 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

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NO.5 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

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NO.7 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.9 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.10 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.13 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.14 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.15 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.17 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.21 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.23 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

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NO.24 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.25 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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NO.27 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.29 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.30 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 220-702
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition))
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Total Q&A: 422 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-31

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NO.1 A technician needs to change the process priority of a background program. Which of the following tools
is BEST for performing this function.?
A. MSCONFIG
B. Computer Management
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 A user is working in a small office home office (SOHO), running Windows XP, and cannot connect to
the Internet. The office uses a router that is setup as a DHCP server. The technician types IPCONFIG in
the command prompt, the following appears:
IP address 0.0.0.0
Gateway 0.0.0.0
Subnet Mask 0.0.0.0
DNS 0.0.0.0
Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A. Network adapter drivers
B. Router settings
C. Network cable
D. Firewall
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer requires a shock resistant mass storage device in their PC. Which of the following drives
should the technician install?
A. Hard disk
B. Solid state
C. Floppy
D. Tape
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following characteristics of Windows Gadgets is accurate?
A. Windows Gadgets are available in all versions of Windows since XP.
B. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista and Windows 7.
C. Windows Gadgets were introduced in Windows 7.
D. Windows Gadgets are part of the Sidebar in Windows Vista.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user powers up their desktop PC, and instead of booting up normally, the user is taken into the BIOS
setup.
Which of the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. The MBR is corrupt
B. NTLDR cannot be found by the system
C. A faulty CMOS battery
D. The BIOS requires a firmware update
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).
A. TELNET
B. SSH
C. POP3
D. FTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 A technician plugs a USB device into the computer. The system tray displays a message that reports
the device is installed, but may not work properly. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the
message?
A. The device needs a firmware update.
B. The device needs an updated driver installed.
C. The plugged in device is too slow for the USB port speed.
D. The device is incompatible with the installed version of Windows.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician is replacing the motherboard on a laptop. Which of the following is the MOST important
step during the disassembly process?
A. Place all of the screws in a container with other parts.
B. Keep the power supply plugged in to ground the system.
C. Organize the screws and document the locations.
D. Use a magnetic tipped screwdriver to remove the screws.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be
used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in
the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?
A. The document is set to hidden.
B. The document is locked.
C. The document was saved as a system document.
D. The document is owned by the first user.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The user cannot access some Internet websites, but can connect to resources inside the local network.
The technician successfully uses the ping command to test the user s connectivity. Which of the following
commands can the technician run NEXT to troubleshoot the issue?
A. net /?
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. netstat -r
D. nbtstat -R
Answer: B

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NO.11 A computer running Windows 7 will not boot up. A user is receiving an ® I nva li d boo t d i s
error.
Which of the following is the cause of this error?
A. The BOOT.INI file is not found.
B. The Windows registry is corrupt.
C. There is a CD-ROM in the drive.
D. The floppy drive is disconnected.
Answer: C

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NO.12 After powering on a workstation, an intrusion alert is displayed indicating that the case has been opened.
How would a technician reset the alert?
A. Change the setting in the registry
B. Change the setting in the BIOS
C. Change the setting in the DOS startup files
D. Change the setting in the Control Panel
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network
range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?
A. Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B. Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C. Upgrade the out-of-range users
SSID searching software.
D. Enable network sharing on the users
computers that are within range.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A technician wants to setup hardware RAID 5 for a Windows 7 computer to prevent data loss. In which
of the following locations would the technician MOST likely change the setting?
A. Disk Manager
B. Device Manager
C. Windows Boot DVD
D. The BIOS
Answer: D

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NO.15 A user is connecting to the Internet using a DSL modem. The user installs a new wireless router and is
unable to connect remotely to their computer, using Remote Desktop. The user had no issues connecting
remotely before the wireless router was installed.
Which of the following is the problem?
A. Wireless router drivers are needed.
B. Port forwarding is not setup.
C. The wireless router is defective.
D. VPN is not setup correctly.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important
consideration?
A. Operating system type of the connected PCs
B. Location of the wireless router
C. Number of PCs that will access the network
D. Number of available Ethernet ports on the router
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following locations would a technician use to add a Windows 7 computer to a domain?
A. System Properties
B. Windows Defender
C. Network and Sharing Center
D. Device Manager
Answer: A

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NO.18 Offline files and folders are available on which versions of Windows? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7 Ultimate
B. Windows 7 Home Premium
C. Windows XP Home
D. Windows Vista Home Premium 64-bit
E. Windows XP Professional
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 Which of the following will fix a laptop with dark irregular lines that run the width of the display in all
video modes?
A. Perform a System Restore
B. Replace the video capture card
C. Change the resolution to 800 x 600
D. Replace the LCD
Answer: D

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NO.20 A customer has a wireless router installed in their home office. The customer is having issues with
signal strength at the opposite end of the house. Which of the following is the BEST option to increase the
signal strength?
A. Install a high gain antennafocused towards the office wall
B. Run CAT5e cable to all of the roomsthat have poor signal strength
C. Install a wireless repeater at the far end of the house
D. Install a second wired router in the far end of the house
Answer: C

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